Just an idle thought that popped into my head, but I was reminded of it during a conversation I had earlier this morning. Since we have brothers/sisters from across the pond on the forum, I figured I’d ask.
I had read once that buildings in London are privately owned, but the building owner doesn’t actually own the property it is built on. The article seemed to infer that the owner had to pay the property owner a monthly (yearly?) rent as it were. Anyone care to explain how the whole thing works? (Or did I misconstrue the meaning?) And does that apply to houses? And how widespread is it?


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